“As it is, they are holy.”
When the baptism of infants is a topic of discussion, Paul’s exhortation to those living with unbelieving spouses in 1 Corinthians 7:13-14 often comes up. Inevitably, there is then some debate over whether this could possibly be applied to the question of baptism at all.
Those who are strictly for credo baptism will no doubt point out that while the passage does speak the believing spouse’s children as sanctified, it also speaks of the unbelieving spouse as sanctified. So to say that since Paul calls the children holy they ought to be baptized is to prove too much, since he also calls the unbelieving spouse holy, and surely he is not suggesting they ought to be baptized as well! I think this is a reasonable point, given how the passage is often presented.
Which brings me to the question of how proponents of infant baptism use the passage. I think we are often guilty of reversing Paul’s logic in here, if not in our own reading of the passage, then in how we represent his line of reasoning. I know I am guilty of having done so in the past. Just so we’re totally clear on what he says, here’s verse 14:
For the unbelieving husband is made holy because of his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy because of her husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy.
What I want to point out in this post is that Paul’s burden here is not about the status of the believing parents’ children! It is rather the status of a believing person’s unbelieving spouse that is in question. Paul is not making an argument here for the holiness of a believing parent’s children. Instead, he is doing something much more powerful:
He is assuming it.
In order to bolster his main point that an unbelieving spouse of a Christian is in some way sanctified, Paul appeals to what he evidently considers obvious and well accepted by all—that the children of believers are holy. Paul tosses the point regarding children into his argument as almost an afterthought, and he never brings children up again. It’s almost an incidental feature of his case, and he expects all his readers to grasp it without further elaboration. Notice how he phrases things:
Otherwise, Paul says, your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy.
In other words, “Corinthians, you must accept that an unbelieving person is sanctified by a believing spouse, for if you reject this possibility, then by conclusion you must also say that your children are also unclean, but you of course know and understand that they, at least, are holy.”
Paul then goes right back to discussing the relationship between a believer and an unbelieving spouse. So while the set-apartness of a spouse may be a question of debate here, the holiness of a believer’s children is not.
Does this by itself prove infant baptism? No, it doesn’t. But I think it strongly supports the case. For unless the children of believers are baptized, recognized members of the covenant family, and so definitively sanctified, how else could Paul so readily appeal to their sanctified state as a given (as he here does) in order to argue for the apparently less obvious sanctification of an unbelieving spouse?
In short: if children were not baptized, then Paul would likely need to make a case for their holiness first.














